Understanding Menstruation and Pregnancy
Posted: Thu Feb 04, 2016 1:56 pm
Dear Scarleteen,
I have a question regarding menstruation and pregnancy. I have read related articles and discussions on your website, and whilst some argue that a period definitely indicates a pregnancy has not and will not occur from a risk prior to that period, some state that in this case pregnancy is 'highly unlikely'. I therefore question if there is any chance, no matter how small, in which a period does not confirm a pregnancy will not happen from a risk occurring at any time before that period begun.
From my understanding, when one has a period it indicates that one did not become pregnant (i.e. a fertilised egg did not implant into the endometrial lining) in the days/weeks directly preceding Day 1 of that period. My concern is if a risk occurred very close (i.e. 1-5 days) before a period then started. Could the person become pregnant in the days/weeks directly following Day 1 of that period, from this pre-period risk? My reasoning is that sperm could survive under ideal conditions for up to 5-7 days. Therefore, if ovulation occurs a couple of days after Day 1 of that period, sperm could theoretically fertilise the released egg and this fertilised egg could then implant itself onto the endometrial lining - marking the start of the pregnancy. Therefore, although the person may not yet be pregnant from the pre-period risk at the time the period begins, she could become pregnant in the days following Day 1 of this period. In this case, having a period does not necessarily confirm that someone will not become pregnant from a risk occurring before that period started. I would appreciate if you could point out the flaws in this argument. I understand that menstruation is not an ideal condition for sperm to survive, but I was just wondering if there is any minuscule chance in which some could. After all, you always warn us against having unprotected sex during a period.
If there is indeed a chance, no matter how small, that pregnancy is possible in the above situation, how many days before the start of a period would a risk have to occur in order for the period directly following that risk to 100% confirm pregnancy has not and will not happen from said risk?
Finally, may I know how many days after a risk could pregnancy (implantation of the fertilised egg) occur? If I had a risk, then five days afterwards had a period, then received another period 5 weeks after the risk, does this 100% confirm that I am not, nor will become pregnant, from that risk 5 weeks ago? My understanding is that this is correct, because (a) sperm cannot survive that long and (b) if implantation occurred in the days between the start of my first and second periods, then my second period would not have arrived.
I just would like to know if I have missed anything out in the way I understood this, which could indicate that there was indeed a minuscule chance in which pregnancy have occurred or could still occur. For example, I have this fear that sperm may have survived longer than normal, or perhaps an egg was fertilised between the start dates of my two periods and will implant after my second period occurs (5 weeks after the risk). Call me silly, but I just need to know if this is 100% impossible or in any way possible.
Really sorry for all the questions, I've just been keeping it to myself for a long time now and really want to go back to the days when having my period completely took away all my fears no matter when the risk occurred prior to the period!
I have a question regarding menstruation and pregnancy. I have read related articles and discussions on your website, and whilst some argue that a period definitely indicates a pregnancy has not and will not occur from a risk prior to that period, some state that in this case pregnancy is 'highly unlikely'. I therefore question if there is any chance, no matter how small, in which a period does not confirm a pregnancy will not happen from a risk occurring at any time before that period begun.
From my understanding, when one has a period it indicates that one did not become pregnant (i.e. a fertilised egg did not implant into the endometrial lining) in the days/weeks directly preceding Day 1 of that period. My concern is if a risk occurred very close (i.e. 1-5 days) before a period then started. Could the person become pregnant in the days/weeks directly following Day 1 of that period, from this pre-period risk? My reasoning is that sperm could survive under ideal conditions for up to 5-7 days. Therefore, if ovulation occurs a couple of days after Day 1 of that period, sperm could theoretically fertilise the released egg and this fertilised egg could then implant itself onto the endometrial lining - marking the start of the pregnancy. Therefore, although the person may not yet be pregnant from the pre-period risk at the time the period begins, she could become pregnant in the days following Day 1 of this period. In this case, having a period does not necessarily confirm that someone will not become pregnant from a risk occurring before that period started. I would appreciate if you could point out the flaws in this argument. I understand that menstruation is not an ideal condition for sperm to survive, but I was just wondering if there is any minuscule chance in which some could. After all, you always warn us against having unprotected sex during a period.
If there is indeed a chance, no matter how small, that pregnancy is possible in the above situation, how many days before the start of a period would a risk have to occur in order for the period directly following that risk to 100% confirm pregnancy has not and will not happen from said risk?
Finally, may I know how many days after a risk could pregnancy (implantation of the fertilised egg) occur? If I had a risk, then five days afterwards had a period, then received another period 5 weeks after the risk, does this 100% confirm that I am not, nor will become pregnant, from that risk 5 weeks ago? My understanding is that this is correct, because (a) sperm cannot survive that long and (b) if implantation occurred in the days between the start of my first and second periods, then my second period would not have arrived.
I just would like to know if I have missed anything out in the way I understood this, which could indicate that there was indeed a minuscule chance in which pregnancy have occurred or could still occur. For example, I have this fear that sperm may have survived longer than normal, or perhaps an egg was fertilised between the start dates of my two periods and will implant after my second period occurs (5 weeks after the risk). Call me silly, but I just need to know if this is 100% impossible or in any way possible.
Really sorry for all the questions, I've just been keeping it to myself for a long time now and really want to go back to the days when having my period completely took away all my fears no matter when the risk occurred prior to the period!