Bleeding After Manual Sex + Clarification
Posted: Sat Oct 15, 2016 1:10 pm
Hi,
Yesterday my boyfriend fingered me. I have been fingered numerous times before and have never bled afterwards. However when I got home from his house a couple hours afterwards I went to the washroom and noticed some brown spotting on my underwear. I believe this is potentially a tear as his fingers did go quite deep this time however his fingers were cleanly cut and washed before he fingered me. I am just wondering if a tear is in what could be causing me to have some spotting or if it is something more serious that I should be worrying about. I am not expecting my period until next week so I know it is definitely not period related spotting.
Also, I have an unrelated question to my bleeding but I just wanted some clarification. I have read every single article on here about what causes a pregnancy and what is considered a pregnancy risk etc however I am a bit conflicted on the issue of genital rubbing and pre-ejaculate. I realize that direct genital-to-genital rubbing is a pregnancy risk and the risk becomes even higher when ejaculation is involved. However what I was wondering about is how is pre-ejaculate a risk if it is not actually released through vaginal intercourse? If there actually is indeed sperm in the pre-ejaculate to begin with how would a couple drops of pre-ejaculate (which would have considerably less sperm than a regular ejaculation) from genital rubbing be able to even make the journey from the vulva all the way to the fallopian tubes when in a regular ejaculation only a couple hundred sperm out of hundreds of millions even make it there? I know withdrawal sometimes fails because pre-ejaculate can cause a pregnancy that way but that would be because it is already inserted deep within the vagina and the pre-ejaculate would have less of a "journey" to make.
In the "Pregnancy Scared" article it says that if no one ejaculated on or very near someone's vulva there is no pregnancy risk. Yet I have read that any contact between a vulva and an erect penis is also a risk. This is confusing for me because what if you do not engage in any vaginal intercourse, anal intercourse, genital-to-genital rubbing or any ejaculation near the vulva which are considered pregnancy risks but what if you are just lying naked together or something similar and in adjusting from one position to another on the bed you accidentally have brief contact between a vulva and an erect penis? Does a brief contact between genitals become a pregnancy risk even though there was not actually any intentional direct genital-to-genital rubbing?
I know this question is very long but I just feel a bit confused on the different information I have read on this website. I just want to make sure that I educate myself properly so that if I ever encounter a situation where I am involved in the activities listed above that I know exactly what is considered a risk.
Thank you in advance!
Yesterday my boyfriend fingered me. I have been fingered numerous times before and have never bled afterwards. However when I got home from his house a couple hours afterwards I went to the washroom and noticed some brown spotting on my underwear. I believe this is potentially a tear as his fingers did go quite deep this time however his fingers were cleanly cut and washed before he fingered me. I am just wondering if a tear is in what could be causing me to have some spotting or if it is something more serious that I should be worrying about. I am not expecting my period until next week so I know it is definitely not period related spotting.
Also, I have an unrelated question to my bleeding but I just wanted some clarification. I have read every single article on here about what causes a pregnancy and what is considered a pregnancy risk etc however I am a bit conflicted on the issue of genital rubbing and pre-ejaculate. I realize that direct genital-to-genital rubbing is a pregnancy risk and the risk becomes even higher when ejaculation is involved. However what I was wondering about is how is pre-ejaculate a risk if it is not actually released through vaginal intercourse? If there actually is indeed sperm in the pre-ejaculate to begin with how would a couple drops of pre-ejaculate (which would have considerably less sperm than a regular ejaculation) from genital rubbing be able to even make the journey from the vulva all the way to the fallopian tubes when in a regular ejaculation only a couple hundred sperm out of hundreds of millions even make it there? I know withdrawal sometimes fails because pre-ejaculate can cause a pregnancy that way but that would be because it is already inserted deep within the vagina and the pre-ejaculate would have less of a "journey" to make.
In the "Pregnancy Scared" article it says that if no one ejaculated on or very near someone's vulva there is no pregnancy risk. Yet I have read that any contact between a vulva and an erect penis is also a risk. This is confusing for me because what if you do not engage in any vaginal intercourse, anal intercourse, genital-to-genital rubbing or any ejaculation near the vulva which are considered pregnancy risks but what if you are just lying naked together or something similar and in adjusting from one position to another on the bed you accidentally have brief contact between a vulva and an erect penis? Does a brief contact between genitals become a pregnancy risk even though there was not actually any intentional direct genital-to-genital rubbing?
I know this question is very long but I just feel a bit confused on the different information I have read on this website. I just want to make sure that I educate myself properly so that if I ever encounter a situation where I am involved in the activities listed above that I know exactly what is considered a risk.
Thank you in advance!