Board post Clarification (another! :))
Posted: Mon Jan 16, 2017 11:29 pm
Hello again!
I was looking at a board comment made by Scarleteen that said pregnancy is NOT at risk if someone has:
"Had any actual or possible contact with pre-ejaculate but NOT during intercourse or direct (where people are naked, with no barriers) genital-to-genital contact."
Would "genital-to-genital" in this situation also be the same thing as intercourse with a condom on?
If, for example, the vulva had come into contact with pre-ejaculate (not during intercourse), but then safe intercourse DID occur after, would this statement still apply?
I was looking at a board comment made by Scarleteen that said pregnancy is NOT at risk if someone has:
"Had any actual or possible contact with pre-ejaculate but NOT during intercourse or direct (where people are naked, with no barriers) genital-to-genital contact."
Would "genital-to-genital" in this situation also be the same thing as intercourse with a condom on?
If, for example, the vulva had come into contact with pre-ejaculate (not during intercourse), but then safe intercourse DID occur after, would this statement still apply?