Board post Clarification (another! :))

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lilaclady
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Board post Clarification (another! :))

Unread post by lilaclady »

Hello again!
I was looking at a board comment made by Scarleteen that said pregnancy is NOT at risk if someone has:
"Had any actual or possible contact with pre-ejaculate but NOT during intercourse or direct (where people are naked, with no barriers) genital-to-genital contact."
Would "genital-to-genital" in this situation also be the same thing as intercourse with a condom on?
If, for example, the vulva had come into contact with pre-ejaculate (not during intercourse), but then safe intercourse DID occur after, would this statement still apply?
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Sam W
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Re: Board post Clarification (another! :))

Unread post by Sam W »

Hi lilaclady,

Genital to genital contact can include intercourse, but can also include grinding/humping without any barriers (no clothes, no condom) present.
And you to whom adversity has dealt the final blow/with smiling bastards lying to you everywhere you go/turn to and put out all your strength of arm and heart and brain/and like the Mary Ellen Carter rise again.
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