Scarleteen

Hi
I’m thinking of having sex. I don’t like the pill so I rely on condoms. I’ve read here that condoms are 85% effective with typical use and 98% with perfect.
What’s the difference between typical and perfect use (so I can use it perfectly )?
Also why is it 98% even with perfect ??
I really don’t want to be pregnant but I also want to leave my fears behind (so I’m stepping out of abstination )
Thanks !

Hi Lola,

To answer this, I'm going to quote from a section that appears in all of our birth control bingo articles:
" Effectiveness rates of contraceptive methods are all figured based on one full year of use, not for each single incident of sex or use of a method. Perfect, or proper, use of a method means that in one year, that method was always used, and always used following the directions for that method to the letter. Perfect use of most methods in one full year is unusual, except for methods like the IUD or implant where a user does not have to do anything. Typical use means that in one year, sometimes a method has not been used according to the directions, or was not always used. Typical use is called that because that is most typically how methods are used in a full year, since people aren't perfect."

Does that make sense?

Thanks !!