Scarleteen

What exactly are the mechanics behind manual sex that enables it to be a no risk sexual activity? I just can't seem to wrap my head around the factors at play, considering the fact that bodily fluids are also taken into account.
I would really appreciate it if you guys were to give me an answer to my curious question!

Specifically the mechanics behind it. Thanks!

Hi jam2,

Can you take a look at these two articles for me to see if they clarify things for you?
Human Reproduction: A Seafarer's Guide
Who's Afraid of Sperm Cells?

Based from what I have read on the articles, they are just susceptible to temperature and pH levels? I'm not quite sure I'm getting this right though...

Does physical contact also affect them anyway? Like if I were to touch them?

Basically, yes. Sperm require certain conditions in order to potentially co-create a pregnancy, condition that simply aren't going to be present with manual sex.

Also I have read from the Human Reproduction article that sperm need semen in order to swim in. Is this the same with pre-ejaculate? Are sperm not able to swim properly inside pre-ejaculate?

Sorry if I am pestering you with my questions. I am just trying to learn better reproductive education.

I think something here might have been missed, so I'm just checking: you know that manual sex is ONLY sex that's about a hand or fingers and one set of genitals, right? That it doesn't actually account for fluid exchange because there isn't any between penis/vagina to consider when manual sex is what's going on?

Is it not fluid exchange if pre-ejaculate and vaginal fluids meet, whether or not it is through genitals or fingers? From what I see, based on your statement, pre-ejaculate from fingers to the vagina does not count as fluid exchange and in the process does not give the conditions needed for pregnancy and thus makes it no risk? Am I getting it right, Heather?

Human reproduction isn't something that happens when semen and vaginal fluids meet (a uterus and ovum are required at the very least!), but again, that is not something that will happen anyway with manual sex which is ONLY hands/fingers + genitals.

Hands and fingers do not produce semen, and vaginal fluids or semen alone can't create a pregnancy. This is why manual sex doesn't pose pregnancy risks.

Are you assuming a scenario in which, for some reason, hands involved in manual sex with a vulva are already covered in semen from another activity? If so, again, that is not part of manual sex, and if the people involved in that activity didn't want to take STI and pregnancy risks, the person whose hands were involved here would merely need to wash them, which is customary anyway.

So there is really only a risk with semen, because with the pre-ejaculate the conditions are not possible?

Honestly, I feel like you are just not hearing me, and I can’t sort out why.

Hands and fingers do not produce semen OR pre-ejaculate. Manual sex does not pose pregnancy risks because manual sex does not involve EITHER genital fluid-sharing or genital-to-genital contact, the things necessary for the possibility of pregnancy.

I think the question is pre ejaculate on a hand that could be transferred to the vagina posing a risk for pregnancy!

The articles that are referred about these questions say that with the manual sex category that pre ejacualate is taken into account but I believe the question being posed is how is this possible if there is technically a sharing of fluids via possible Precum on hand

(That’s at least just to my understanding)

Yes, I think Stephanie got the gist of my query!

If you’re referring to our articles that explain pregnancy risks, what they say is that fluids are taken into account in determining those risks. But not all activities involve fluid sharing, so that will not even be a factor in some.

I feel confident we have literally explained this to death right now, but here we go one more time for good measure: manual sex - when ONLY manual sex is happening, not other activities - doesn’t pose a pregnancy risk by itself because it involves NEITHER direct genital contact nor fluid sharing, the things needed for the possibility of pregnancy. Outside lab conditions, BOTH of those things are generally required for a pregnancy to occur, and quite specifically, but there always needs to be at least one. That’s really all there is to it.

Going to close this thread now because it is just not a productive use of our time and resources to keep going round and round with this: the answer here isn’t going to change and we just can’t simplify it any more than we have.