Question on Terminology used

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Useridentified
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Question on Terminology used

Unread post by Useridentified »

Hello,
This is not a pregnancy scare I just have a question on the terminology used for “ejaculation” and the cause of pregnancy.

In the Pregnancy Panic Companion it talks in my own words:

Direct contact with ejaculate there can be a pregnancy. Does this mean if I had ejaculate on my hands then I pleasured a female this could lead to pregnancy

But on the other hand
Scenarios like these are NOT how pregnancy happens:

Contact with PRE-EJACULATE, but NOT during intercourse or direct genital-to-genital contact does this include ejaculate as well?

It may all be in plain sight for me but I think some of the information has gone over my head sorry to the staff/volunteers of Scarleteen for this.

Thanks in advance.
Heather
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Re: Question on Terminology used

Unread post by Heather »

I get that confusion.

We're pretty clear that seminal fluids (of any kind) on the hands are not at all likely to result in a pregnancy, because that's not direct contact: there's a stop in between, the hands.

As well, I hope we also make clear that unprotected intercourse always carries a potential risk, and that's true whether we're talking about a full ejaculation (in which the risk is high, all other conditions withstanding) or pre-ejaculate (where it's a lot less likely, but still possible).

That clear things up for you? :)
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Useridentified
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Sexual identity: Heterosexual
Location: United Kingdom

Re: Question on Terminology used

Unread post by Useridentified »

Yes it does and in your second paragraph.
“Intercourse” would refer to direct genital to genital contact I assume.

And all other conditions withstanding will be the sperm being at its optimum conditions for helping to conceive?
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