Condoms can only fail through slipping or breaking, and assuming it was used properly, there should be no risk if neither of these things happened.
Is the above statement correct? That it would be obvious if there was a condom failure?
Also, I would like to have a little clarification on this statement as well: Condoms are "98% effective in one year of perfect use; 2 out of every 100 people will become pregnant"
For those 2/100 people, will the reason they become pregnant be theoretically because of breakage/slippage, or is there some cause outside of that?
Im sure you've answered this question a lot,
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