Condom Failure Confusion

[katkit0598]

Hi! I've seen talk about this recently and I too am looking for a little clarification on this subject. Essentially what i've gathered is:
Condoms can only fail through slipping or breaking, and assuming it was used properly, there should be no risk if neither of these things happened.
Is the above statement correct? That it would be obvious if there was a condom failure?

Also, I would like to have a little clarification on this statement as well: Condoms are "98% effective in one year of perfect use; 2 out of every 100 people will become pregnant"
For those 2/100 people, will the reason they become pregnant be theoretically because of breakage/slippage, or is there some cause outside of that?

Im sure you've answered this question a lot, but I just want to be sure im understanding properly. Thanks in advance.

[Eddie C]

Hello there, katkit. And thanks for making your own thread.

You got it right. If and when a condom fails is going to be absolutely visible and there's no way it will go unnoticed. The ways a condom can fail would be when they break because people do not add lubrication to it, or because they were not properly stored and they get damaged. A rip on a condom, even if it starts small, with the friction get bigger, just like a balloon when it pops. Once Heather compare it with when you get a run on a stocking. How the smallest thing turns into a big run really fast. Other way to fail is when they slip off because the person wearing the condom doesn't hold the base before withdrawing, or because they do not pull out right after they ejaculate. This can also happen if people do not use the right size of condom.

So, for people who use condoms it is very safe if they use them properly. But, humans are not perfect and things do not always work out the way we want. Some people might have an expired condom, or a condom that got damaged while it was in their purse or wallet. People won't always hold the base of the condoms when pulling out and many many more things might happen, and that's why condoms have a 98% efficiency rate.

Does it make any sense?

Here's even more information about condoms, if you want: http://www.scarleteen.com/birth_control_bingo_condoms

[katkit0598]

Yes, thanks! You answered my question exactly.

[katkit0598]

Actually, I do have a follow up question.

After ejaculation, if my partner did not hold the base of the condom before pulling out, however the condom did not slip off, is there any risk involved?
Seems like this would make it possible for some sperm to escape at the base of the condom, but if it did, I reckon it would only end up on the outer labia. (not really sure here)

[Heather]

We have to watch it with the "any risk" language: condoms, like every other method of contraception, simply aren't 100% effective, so we can't ever accurately say that ANY method used meant no risk of pregnancy was presented.

But the issue with holding the base is to keep a condom from slipping off, which would create a condom failure: in other words, we'd no longer be talking proper or even typical use. If no one holds unto the base but the condom doesn't slip off, though, then you can know you're not looking at a failure due to a condom slipping off.

[katkit0598]

Seems quite obvious once you've phrased it that way! And you have a good point with the term "any risk". Thanks again. Love this site

[Heather]

You're welcome, and so glad you do!